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Code d'Examen: 156-815
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert NGX)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 To configure for CMA redundancy, which of the following would be necessary?
A. Multiple MDS Container machines
B. The CMA High Availability option selected in the CMA properties window
C. Multiple CMAs configured on a single MDS
D. Multiple MDS Manager machines
E. The CMA High Availability option selected in the Customer properties window
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815   156-815

NO.2 The MDS will initiate status collection from the CMAs when which of the following occurs?
A. MDS-level High Availability is configured.
B. CMA-level High Availability is configured.
C. CMAs have established SIC with remote Security Gateways.
D. Get Node Data action is requested for a specific object displayed in the SmartUpdate View.
E. The MDG connects to the MDS Manager.
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-815   156-815 examen

NO.3 When you set up Administrator permissions during the initial installation and configuration process,
which of the
following options is NOT available?
A. Regular Administrator (None)
B. Customer Superuser
C. Provider Superuser
D. Provider Manager
E. Customer Manager
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815   certification 156-815   156-815

NO.4 The Eventia Reporter Add-on for Provider-1 does not have its own package. It is installed, removed,
enabled, and disabled using which of the following scripts?
A. SVRSetup
B. sysconfig
C. cpconfig
D. SetupUtil
E. EVRSetup
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815 examen

NO.5 Which of the following actions occurs after the configuration of a CLM on an MDS MLM for a specific
Customer?
A. The CLM object appears in the MDG. The Administrator needs to launch a SmartDashboard for that
CLM, and configure it to retrieve the logs from the CMA's Gateway.
B. A default CLM object is created in the CMA Security Policy and is added to the list of log servers for
each configured
Security Gateway.
C. No changes appear in the CMA Security Policy, but none are required. Once the CLM of a specific
Customer is created, all logs are sent to that CLM by default. This is after the Policy is installed on the
Gateway and the master's file is edited by the system.
D. The system creates a default CLM object in the CMA Security Policy. The Administrator must then log
in to the CMA and configure the Gateway to send all logs to the CLM, by including the CLM object in its
list of log servers.
E. The system performs no default configuration tasks. The Administrator must log into the CMA, create
the CLM object,and add it to the Gateway's list of log servers.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815 examen   156-815 examen   certification 156-815

NO.6 When configuring an MDS MLM from the MDG, which of the following are required?
A. MDS IP address and MDS type
B. MDS Name and CMA IP address range
C. MDS Name and MDS type
D. MDS Name and MDS IP address
E. MDS IP address and CMA IP address range
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-815 examen   156-815 examen   156-815

NO.7 What is the function of a CLM?
A. Performs system backups of the Primary and Secondary MDS machines.
B. Regulates ConnectControl traffic from the NOC to remote Gateways.
C. Serves as a backup CMA for CMA-level High Availability.
D. Protects the Provider-1 system from a network attack.
E. Collects log data for managed Security Gateways.
Answer: E

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NO.8 When installing the Primary MDS, what information must you have?
A. Type of MDS and IP address of Secondary MDS
B. Type of MDS and IP address range for virtual IP addresses
C. Type of MDS and name of leading virtual IP interface
D. Type of MDS and one-time password
E. Type of MDS and number of CMAs to be configured
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815   certification 156-815   156-815 examen

NO.9 How many Multi Domain GUIs (MDG) can connect a Multi Domain Server (MDS) at a time?
A. 250
B. 5
C. unlimited
D. 500
E. 1
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-815   certification 156-815   certification 156-815

NO.10 Identify the following Provider-1 configuration:
A. NOC
B. ISP
C. Standard
D. Point-of-presence
E. MSP
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-815   156-815 examen

NO.11 Secure communication from CMAs to the Security Gateways uses which type of encryption?
A. Traffic between CMAs and Security Gateways is not encrypted. Therefore, no encryption is used.
B. IKE with pre-shared secret
C. 256-bit SSL encryption
D. 128-bit SSL encryption
E. RSA encryption
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815 examen   156-815   certification 156-815

NO.12 The Rule Base shown below is installed on the NOC firewall at the MSP:If the Administrator intended to
install licenses on remote Security Gateways by using SmartUpdate, this Rule Base is incomplete. Which
of the following additions would complete the Rule Base configuration?
<e ip="4-1.gif"></e>
A. The MDS must be added to the Source column of the CMAs-to-Security Gateways Rule.
B. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the MDS.
C. Create a rule that allows the remote Gateways access to the CMAs.
D. Create a rule allowing the Primary and Secondary MDS machines located at the NOC to connect to
each other.
E. Create a rule allowing the remote Gateways access to the NOC firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.13 As a Provider-1 Administrator, you are concerned about the security of your NOC. You decide to install
a NOC firewall and hire a firewall expert to administer it. Your firewall expert wants to institute some
security measures to increase the firewall's ability to protect the NOC. One of his ideas is to hide all of the
invalid IP addresses of the CMAs, by installing a Hide NAT Policy on the firewall. Will this plan work?
A. Yes, because the CMAs use virtual IP addresses, and they require a single valid IP address to manage
remote Security Gateways.
B. No, because Hide NAT does not allow remote Gateways to connect directly to the CMAs.
C. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of 0.0.0.0.
D. No, because VPN-1 NGX does not allow Administrators to configure Hide NAT on objects with
assigned virtual IP addresses.
E. Yes, but only if Hide NAT is configured with the Hide address of the leading MDS interface.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A Managed Service Provider (MSP) is using Provider-1 to manage their customer's security policies.
What is the recommended method of securing the Provider-1 system in a NOC environment?
A. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator and the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
B. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
C. The Provider-1 software includes an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use the included firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
D. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the NOC
Security Administrator.
E. The Provider-1 software does not include an integrated firewall to protect the Provider-1 system. It is
recommended to use a separate firewall to secure the Provider-1 environment, managed by the
Provider-1 / MSP Administrator.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Does the Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintain multiple customer data bases, with each customer
data base relating to a single CMA?
A. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) does not maintain customer databases or CMAs.
B. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases with each customer
database relating to multiple CMAs.
C. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain multiple customer databases managing one CMA per
customer database.
D. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) can maintain a single customer database able to relate to one CMA.
E. The Multi Domain Server (MDS) maintains one customer database able to relate to multiple CMAs.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-815 examen   156-815   156-815

NO.16 Which service does the MDG use to connect to the MDS?
A. SAM
B. CPD
C. CPMI
D. SWTP
E. SVC
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-815   156-815   156-815

NO.17 After the trial period expires, a permanent license must be installed. To successfully install a bundle
license before the trial license expires, you must disable the trial license. Which of the following
commands will disable the trial-period license on a CMA before the license expires?
A. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 1
B. SetPNPDisable lic
C. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 0
D. cpprod_SetPNPDisable 0
E. cpprod_util CPPROD_SetPnPDisable 1
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   156-815   156-815   certification 156-815

NO.18 How many CMAs can each MDS manage?
A. Unlimited
B. 50
C. 500
D. 250
E. 200
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815   156-815 examen   156-815

NO.19 All Check Point Products come with a 15-day trial-period license. How many CMAs can be managed
by an MDS
Manager running with only the trial license?
A. 500
B. 1
C. 200
D. 5
E. 100
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-815   156-815   156-815 examen   156-815

NO.20 How many CLMs can each MDS MLM hold?
A. 225
B. unlimited
C. 50
D. 500
E. 250
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 156-815.70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.2 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.4 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.5 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.6 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R70/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.7 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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NO.8 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R70 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.9 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R70/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.10 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.11 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.12 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.13 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.14 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.15 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.16 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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NO.18 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.19 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70 examen

NO.20 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
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NO.1 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71 examen   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.3 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71 examen   certification 156-315-71

NO.4 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.5 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315-71   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.6 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.7 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.8 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.9 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71

NO.10 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.11 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.12 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71 examen

NO.13 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71 examen

NO.14 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71 examen   certification 156-315-71

NO.15 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315-71   certification 156-315-71

NO.16 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71 examen

NO.17 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71   156-315-71

NO.18 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-315-71 examen   156-315-71

NO.19 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315-71   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71   certification 156-315-71

NO.20 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315-71   certification 156-315-71

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.13
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
Questions et réponses: 639 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. Through the Firewall policy
B. From the Internet
C. Through all interfaces
D. Through internal interfaces
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.13   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.2 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-315.13   156-315.13   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.3 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13 examen

NO.4 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the
gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
A. Only Group in Branch
B. Only Sub Tree
C. OU Auth and select Group Name
D. All Account-Unit's Users
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13

NO.5 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.6 VPN-1 NGX includes a resource mechanism for working with the Common Internet File
System (CIFS). However, this service only provides a limited level of actions for CIFS security. Which
of the following services is NOT provided by a CIFS resource?
A. Log access shares
B. Block Remote Registry Access
C. Log mapped shares
D. Allow MS print shares
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.7 Public keys and digital certificates provide which of the following? Select three.
A. Non repudiation
B. Data integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: A,B,D

CheckPoint   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13 examen

NO.8 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
B. MEP VPN's are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.9 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315.13   certification 156-315.13

NO.10 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols,
passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you
select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.13   certification 156-315.13

NO.11 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13   certification 156-315.13   certification 156-315.13

NO.12 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.13 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13

NO.14 What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN?
A. Mesh VPN Community
B. Any VPN Community
C. Remote Access VPN Community
D. Star VPN Community
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.15 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 156-210
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.2 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.3 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.4 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.5 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.6 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint examen   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.7 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.8 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.9 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.10 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.11 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.12 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.13 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.14 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.15 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.16 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.17 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.18 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.19 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.20 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210

NO.21 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.22 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.23 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.24 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.25 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.26 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.27 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.28 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210 examen

NO.29 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.30 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.65
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Expert NGX R65)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 You are running the license_upgrade tool on your SecurePlatform Gateway. Which of the following
can you NOT do with the upgrade tool?
A. Simulate the license-upgrade process.
B. View the licenses in the SmartUpdate License Repository.
C. Perform the actual license-upgrade process.
D. View the status of currently installed licenses.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65

NO.2 What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier
D. Fetch sync status
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.3 What action can be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. remote_uninstall_verifier
B. upgrade_export
C. mds_backup
D. cpinfo
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.4 What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new
packages with SmartUpdate?
A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.5 What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TCP 8080
D. CPMI
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65

NO.6 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A. VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
B. VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
C. VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
D. None, all versions require a license upgrade
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65 examen

NO.7 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
SecurePlatform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via SmartUpdate. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the Repository
prior to upgrade?
A. SecurePlatform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. SecurePlatform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.8 You plan to migrate an NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 SmartCenter Server on Windows to
VPN-1 NGX R65. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 Pro Gateways at remote offices, and one local
VPN-1 Pro Gateway at your company's headquarters. The SmartCenter Server configuration must be
migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD on the SmartCenter Server, select "Upgrade".
2. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
3. Reinstall all gateways using NGX R65 and install a policy.
B. 1. From the VPN-1 NGX R65 CD in the SmartCenter Server, select "Export".
2. Install VPN-1 NGX R65 on a new PC using the option "Installation using imported configuration"
3. Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate.
4. Upgrade software on all five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
C. 1. Copy the $FWDIR\conf directory from the SmartCenter Server.
2. Save directory contents to another file server.
3. Uninstall the SmartCenter Server, and install a new SmartCenter Server.
4. Move the saved directory contents to $FWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files.
5. Reinstall all gateways using VPN-1 NGX R65 and install a Security Policy.
D. 1. Upgrade the five remote Gateways via SmartUpdate.
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, using the NGX R65 CD.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.9 What tools CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate NGX R65?
A. cpinfo
B. SecurePlatform Web UI
C. Nokia Voyager
D. snapshot
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65

NO.10 Choose all correct statements. SmartUpdate, located on a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server, allows
you to:
(1) Remotely perform a first time installation of VPN-1 NGX on a new machine
(2) Determine OS patch levels on remote machines
(3) Update installed Check Point and any OPSEC certified software remotely
(4) Update installed Check Point software remotely
(5) Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
(6) Centrally manage licenses
A. 4, 5, & 6
B. 2, 4, 5, & 6
C. 1 & 4
D. 1, 3, 4, & 6
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65

NO.11 You are using SmartUpdate to fetch data and perform a remote upgrade of an NGX Security Gateway.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If SmartDashboard is open during package upload and upgrade, the upgrade will fail.
B. A remote installation can be performed without the SVN Foundation package installed on a remote NG
with Application Intelligence Security Gateway
C. SmartUpdate can query the SmartCenter Server and VPN-1 Gateway for product information
D. SmartUpdate can query license information running locally on the VPN-1 Gateway
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.12 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e contents of the CD are copied to the packages
directory on the selected remote Security Gateway.
B. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he en tir e con t en t s o f t he CD a r e cop i ed t o t he Package
Repository on the SmartCenter Server.
C. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he packages d ir ec t o r y
on the selected remote Security Gateway.
D. After selecting "Packages: Add ­ fr o m CD ", t he se l ec t ed package i s cop i ed t o t he Package R epos it o r y
on the SmartCenter Server.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-315.65   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.13 If a SmartUpdate upgrade or distribution operation fails on SecurePlatfom, how is the system
recovered?
A. SecurePlatform will reboot and automatically revert to the last snapshot version prior to upgrade.
B. The Administrator must remove the rpm packages manually, and reattempt the upgrade.
C. The Administrator can only revert to a previously created snapshot (if there is one) with the command
cprinstall snapshot <object name> <filename>.
D. The Administrator must reinstall the last version via the command cprinstall revert <object name> <file
name>.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.14 Your current VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and
SmartCenter Server runs on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX R65 in a distributed
environment, where the new machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and the existing machine will be the
VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration,
including licensing.
How do you handle licensing for this NGX R65 upgrade?
A. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license also licensed to the new SmartCenter Server's IP address.
B. Leave the current license on the gateway to be upgraded during the software upgrade. Purchase a
new license for the VPN-1 NGX R65 SmartCenter Server.
C. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the existing gateway machine's IP address.
Request a new local license for the NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway using the new server's IP address.
D. Request an NGX R65 SmartCenter Server license, using the new server's IP address. Request a new
central NGX R65 VPN-1 Gateway license for the existing gateway server's IP address.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65   156-315.65

NO.15 Which of these components does NOT require a VPN-1 NGX R65 license?
A. SmartConsole
B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.16 Concerning these products: SecurePlatform, VPN-1 Pro Gateway, UserAuthority Server, Nokia OS,
UTM-1, Eventia Reporter, and Performance Pack, which statement is TRUE?
A. All but the Nokia OS can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
B. All but Performance Pack can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
C. All can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
D. All but the UTM-1 can be upgraded to VPN-1 NGX R65 with SmartUpdate.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.17 Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning contract verification?
A. Your contract file is stored on the User Center and fetched by the Gateway as needed.
B. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the SmartCenter Server.
C. Your contract file is stored on the SmartConsole and downloaded to the Gateway.
D. Your contract file is stored on the SmartCenter Server and downloaded to the Security Gateway.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   certification 156-315.65

NO.18 Why should the upgrade_export configuration file (.tgz) be deleted after you complete the import
process?
A. It will prevent a future successful upgrade_export since the .tgz file cannot be overwritten.
B. It will conflict with any future upgrades run from SmartUpdate.
C. SmartUpdate will start a new installation process if the machine is rebooted.
D. It contains your security configuration, which could be exploited.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

NO.19 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
A. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway but the installation IS
NOT performed.
B. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he S m a rt U pda t e w i za r d
walks the Administrator through a Distributed Installation.
C. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay , t he se l ec t ed package i s
copied from the Package Repository on the SmartCenter to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
D. After selecting "Packages > Distribute ­ " and choos i ng t he t a r ge t ga t e w ay
the selected package is
copied from the CDROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security Gateway and the installation IS
performed.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.65   156-315.65 examen

NO.20 You are a Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (Hotfix Accumulator) to ten Security
Gateways at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this HFA?
A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update
B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely
C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, initiate a
remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor.
D. Send a CDROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.65 examen   156-315.65

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