Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Motorola Solutions MSC-431 MSC-111 MSC-235

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Code d'Examen: MSC-431
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-111
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-235
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.4 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.5 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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MSC-122 dernières questions d'examen certification Motorola Solutions et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: MSC-122
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-122   MSC-122

NO.3 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.6 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.12 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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Motorola Solutions MSC-131 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MSC-131
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.7 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.12 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

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NO.14 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification Motorola Solutions pratique d'examen MSC-241 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MSC-241
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.4 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.5 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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NO.10 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-122
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 You have just conducted a throughput test using iPerf on a WLAN that shows a PHY signaling rate of 54
Mbps, however the average throughput rate shown in iPerf is only 23.5 Mbps. What is the most likely
explanation for this condition?
A. This throughput speed is considered nominal.
B. This throughput rate could indicate a mismatch between Wi-Fi confidentiality algorithms.
C. This throughput rate indicates excessive user activity.
D. This throughput rate indicates excessive out-of-band interference such as nearby cell phone towers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are deploying a new system and are creating the RF Domain(s). Which of the following options
would you use to group the APs into the same domain?
A. By VLAN, where all APs are on the same subnet.
B. By site, which can be a location where the group of installed APs can hear each other's beacons.
C. By name, so they can be easily sorted in the tree view of the controller.
D. By deployment phase, so configurations can be accidentally pushed to newly installed APs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have an access point that requires PoE connected to a switch with a 150 meter 10 BASE-T CAT 5
cable. During testing numerous problems with both data transmission and intermittent power occurs.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The cable should be CAT 6
B. There is a duplex mismatch
C. The cable should be 100 BASE-T
D. The cable is too long
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your customer has requested that you configure unique VLANs for voice, normal user data with
802.1X security, guest access, and management traffic. Which of the following VLAN modes can support
this request?
A. Native Mode
B. Access Mode
C. Trunk Mode
D. Aggregation Mode
E. Encapsulation Mode
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have configured a Motorola RFS controller using WiNG 5 and have attempted to adopt a group of
APs using L2 adoption but the adoption is not successful. You have confirmed the following:
-All of the APs have an Ethernet connection to the same LAN segment as the controller -Spanning Tree
Protocol (STP) has been disabled on the APs next hop switch port -Intermediate firewalls are not blocking
EtherType 0x8783
Given this scenario, which of the following is the most likely cause of the unsuccessful AP adoption?
A. DHCP option 192 has not been defined on the DHCP server
B. A local VLAN has been configured on both the controller and the APs
C. The APs GE ports have been configured for an S02.1q-tagged native VLAN
D. The APs GE ports have been configured for an 802.1q-untagged native VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your customer has requested that during the upcoming 802.llg to 802.11n upgrade deployment you
enable 40 MHz channels on 1, 6, and 11 of the 2.4 GHz ISM band. You respond by saying that there is not
enough spectrum to allow 40 MHz channels centered on 1, 6, and 11. How wide are standard 802.11g
(OFDM) channels?
A. 20 MHz
B. 83.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 11 MHz
E. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the configuration of Motorola RFS controllers is TRUE?
A. ADSP can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
B. LANPlanner can be used to push CLI profiles to APs and controllers.
C. RFMS can be used to perform predictive site surveys using an RFS controller
D. WiNG 5 can be used to perform manual site surveys using an RFs controller
E. CLI can be used to perform both manual and predictive site surveys using an RFS controller.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are deploying a new WLAN within the WiNG 5 architecture. Which of the following is the only
UNSUPPORTED Motorola access point/port?
A. AP-300
B. AP-650
C. AP-5131
D. AP-7131
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are performing a physical site survey of a new WiNG 5 WLAN deployment. Which of the following is
CORRECT?
A. The Signal to Noise Ratio (SNR) is a critical measurement that needs to be addressed.
B. It is acceptable that you use any RF infrastructure device (Access Point) to perform the site survey test.
C. Using default settings of a site survey application will provide an adequate site survey result.
D. Customer throughput requirements are the only criteria for which need to be surveyed.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is the primary method of collision avoidance in an 802.11 CSMA/CA WLAN?
A. Backoff Timer
B. Carrier Sense
C. Contention Window
D. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
E. Distributed Coordination Function Interframe Spaces (DIFS)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following APs does not support adaptive mode?
A. AP7131
B. AP6532
C. AP650
D. AP6521
Answer: A

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NO.12 If a Motorola access point induces a 50 mW RF signal onto a 3 dBi antenna, what will be the resulting
EIRP of the transmitted signal?
A. 0 dBm
B. 3 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 50 mW
E. 50 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.13 During a recent throughput analysis test of your 802.11g network, you discovered that performance is
poor in comparison to previous baselines. You discover that this is the result of 802.11b stations becoming
associated with your access point. What option could you implement to eliminate 802.lib clients from
attaching to your network?
A. Implement protection mechanisms
B. Make 24 mbps a required data rate
C. Implement RTS/CTS at the access point
D. Change the channel used for the network
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is NOT considered to be a best practice with respect to the wired
backbone serving the WLAN.?
A. When performing manual configuration of a point-to-point Ethernet link, ensure that both the speed and
the duplex mode settings on the two ports match.
B. When creating a link between Ethernet 10/100BASE-T or 10/100/1000BASE-T ports, enable (or accept
the default of) auto-negotiation on both ports.
C. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, enable (or accept the default of)
auto-negotiation.
D. When creating a link between Gigabit Ethernet fiber ports, disable auto-negotiation on both ports.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are designing a WLAN that will support multiple BSS IDs. One of the characteristics you need to
take into consideration is that each BSS transmits a beacon every 100 ms. How many BSSs can be
enabled on the following Motorola access points under WiNG 5: AP7131, AP650, AP6532?
A. 2, one per radio
B. 1 per AP, it is shared between the radios to provide seamless roaming
C. 8, four per radio
D. 16, eight per radio
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-111
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.5 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.6 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.8 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.10 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.12 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.13 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.14 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.15 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: MSC-431
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.2 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.3 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.5 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-111
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.2 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.3 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.4 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.8 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.10 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.12 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: MSC-241
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.2 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.6 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.7 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.9 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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