Dernières HP HP0-Y11 HP0-S12 HP0-S11 HP0-081 HP0-S14 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S11
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-081
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S14
Nom d'Examen: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 You are asked to investigate a failing hard drive on a ProLiant DL380 G5. When you arrive at the rack,
you notice all the hard drive LEDs are flashing and the server UID light is flashing blue. What is
happening?
A. The array is rebuilding a redundant array using an RDP scripted task. The UID is blinking because
RDP is in control.
B. A disk has failed in a nonredundant array and all logical drives are lost. You must erase all logical drives
and rebuild the server.
C. Someone is accessing the unit using the iLO 2 remote console and is probably using the Array
Configuration Utility to check on the RAID configuration.
D. Someone has requested remote assistance from the HP SIM console and is using the storage agents
to run an identification SNMP task on all the disks in the array.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which products are ProLiant Essentials Value Pack options for configuration management? (Select
three.)
A. Automation Pack
B. Rapid Deployment Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Integrated Lights-Out Advanced Pack
E. Remote Direct Memory Access Pack
Answer: BCD

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NO.3 Which management protocols can HP SIM use to automatically discover and identify HP servers,
desktops, clusters, workstations, and portables? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: ABE

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NO.4 Which advanced memory protection technology avoids unplanned downtime due to a complete
memory chip failure?
A. Online Spare
B. Standard ECC
C. Advanced ECC
D. Mirrored Memory
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which server recovery functions are included with Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)? (Select three.)
A. automatic memory repair
B. recovery from a fan failure
C. automatic hard drive repair
D. recovery from a processor failure
E. recovery from a power supply failure
F. automatic restarting after an operating system failure
Answer: ADF

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NO.6 Which resource gathers information for sizing, recommends tools, and helps to deploy a business
solution?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. Product Bulletin
C. Enterprise Configurator
D. Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a feature of SATA?
A. PIN efficiency is lower than ATA hard drives.
B. SATA host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
C. SATA drives are daisy-chained during configuration.
D. It uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as Serial Attached SCSI.
Answer: D

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NO.8 From which HP resource can you access a set of tools, e-Services and solution sizers to help plan and
implement a suitable server solution for a customer?
A. HP Support Center
B. ActiveAnswers website
C. Solutions Programs Portal website
D. Channel Services Network website
E. Support and Troubleshooting website
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which default port number is used with the following link to open HP Systems Insight Manager?
https://<Server_IP_address>:
A. 23
B. 2301
C. 2381
D. 50000
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer wants to connect an MSA30 DB storage solution to a ProLiant DL380 G5 server. Which
Smart Array controller is required to connect both MSA connectors?
A. Smart Array 6i
B. Smart Array 641
C. Smart Array 642
D. Smart Array 6402
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is correct regarding Transmit Load Balancing (TLB)?
A. TLB teaming has a maximum of four NICs in a team.
B. TLB requires an 802.3ad-capable switch to support TLB teaming.
C. NICs in TLB do not have Network Fault Tolerance (NFT) capability.
D. TLB can receive at 1000Mb/s (theoretical throughput) using four teamed Gigabit Ethernet NICs.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are required to provide a UPS solution for a ProLiant DL380 G5 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000.
All units are supplied with fully redundant power supplies (PSUs). The customer's goal is to provide
proper shutdown in the event of an extended power outage. Which guidelines are important as part of
your recommended minimum solution? (Select two.)
A. The UPS should have a minimum of 2 load segments.
B. The UPS should have a minimum of 3 load segments.
C. The UPS should have a minimum of 6 load segments.
D. Provide one UPS of VA rating based on the sizing requirements of the UPS Sizing Tool.
E. Provide one UPS of VA rating equal to at least 1.40 x the total maximum combined power requirements
(watts) of all units.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What are the preferred methods for multiserver deployment? (Select two.)
A. SmartStart
B. iLO Scripting
C. Rapid Deployment Pack
D. Insight Control Linux Edition
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which type of memory protection calculates a 72-bit syndrome for every 64 bits of data?
A. Automatic Parity Checking (APC)
B. Error Checking and Correcting (ECC)
C. Error Detecting and Correction (EDC)
D. Battery Backed Write Cache (BBWC)
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which features are added to Lights-Out 100i Advanced Pack compared to Lights-Out 100? (Select
three.)
A. control system power
B. embedded KVM over IP
C. boot to remote diskette drive
D. available as option expansion card
E. full remote graphical console capabilities
F. embedded Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: BEF

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NO.16 Which tasks can be performed on a group of iLO processors by an administrator using the HP
Lights-Out Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. Configure network settings.
B. Team the iLO ports for high availability.
C. Activate the ProLiant Essentials iLO Advanced Pack license keys.
D. Integrate iLO ports in one HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) group.
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Which ports must be open when using the HP SIM defaults through a firewall? (Select three.)
A. 22 (SSH)
B. 23 (Telnet)
C. 8160 (Patrol)
D. 137 (NETBIOS)
E. 161 (SNMP Agent)
F. 5989 (HTTPS WMI Mapper)
Answer: AEF

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NO.18 A customer requires a Linux file server to be accessed by Windows and UNIX workstations. Which
services should be installed to support this requirement? (Select two.)
A. MD
B. NFS
C. NSS
D. SMB
E. CUPS
F. AutoFS
Answer: BD

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NO.19 You need to estimate the run time for a UPS solution for some HP ProLiant servers. Which tool
accomplishes this task?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Power Distribution Utility
C. Rack and Power Manager
D. UPS Enterprise Configurator
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which script is sent securely by CPQLOCFG to iLO over the network?
A. RIBCL
B. RIBdos.vbs
C. HPONCFG
D. CPQLODOS
Answer: A

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Dernières HP HP0-Y11 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.2 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.10 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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NO.13 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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