2013年8月31日星期六

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Code d'Examen: SABE201
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (BusinessObjects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI - Level One)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You want department administrators to perform some basic administrative tasks that require them to
be able to access the Central Management Console (CMC). How will you give the department
administrators the right to be able to grant access to the CMC to other administrators in their own
departments?
A.In the Organize Objects area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Edit this object".
B.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Full control".
C.In the Manage Settings area, select Central Management Console, Add the department administrator
group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
D.In the Manage BusinessObjects Applications area, select Central Management Console, Add the
department administrator group(s) and grant them the right to "Modify the rights users have to this object".
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which steps should you follow in the Central Management Console (CMC) in order to create a new
Profile that will enable you to use a Publication to distribute personalized information to each of your store
managers? (Select the best option.)
A.Select the Publication object, click on the Schedule tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
B.Select the Publication object, click on the Source tab, then on Profiles and click Add.
C.Select the Publication object, click on the Profiles tab and click New Profile.
D.Select the Profiles object, click New Profile.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which statement describes the role of BusinessObjects Enterprise within the Business Objects
Business Intelligence (BI) suite of products?
A.Allows you to analyze and interact with data from both relational and OLAP data sources.
B.Provides you with an open, scalable platform that supports all of your BI tools and applications.
C.Provides you with a process for accessing data, formatting it and delivering it as information to various
users.
D.Allows you to integrate, transform and deliver enterprise data from any source.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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NO.5 Select two true statements about Scheduling Publications from below. (Choose two.)
A.You can schedule Publication that contains both Desktop Intelligence and Web Intelligence documents.
B.You cannot schedule Publication on a recurring basis.
C.You can test Publication before scheduling.
D.Scheduling Publications is an example of single-pass refresh bursting as oppose to multi-pass report
bursting.
Answer:C D

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NO.6 What steps should you follow to make Report A run automatically every day upon the successful
completion of Report B?
A.Working in InfoView, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B to run daily, with events
and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion window. Schedule Report A
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to wait for window.
B.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new schedule-based event. Schedule Report B
to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events to trigger on completion
window. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add the new schedule-based event to the Events
to wait for window.
C.Working in the Central Management Console, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run
daily, with events and add the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs
successfully, trigger the custom event in the Central Management Console.
D.Working in InfoView, create a new custom event. Schedule Report A to run daily, with events and add
the new custom event to the Events to wait for window. After Report B runs successfully, trigger the
custom event in the Central Management Console.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which statement describes how corporate categories operate as a component of a content and
management plan for your BusinessObjects Enterprise system?
A.Categories must be set up to reflect each user's personal requirements.
B.Copies of objects must be added to each category where they are included.
C.Users have rights to access each object in a category based on its actual folder location.
D.Access rights to objects in categories must be set for each user.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which three BusinessObjects Enterprise servers interact directly with the databases that contain report
data? (Choose three.)
A.Desktop Intelligence Job Server
B.Crystal Reports Job Server
C.Crystal Reports Page Server
D.Web Intelligence Job Server
Answer:A B C

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NO.9 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true when you make changes to the report properties of a published Crystal
Report object using the Central Management Console (CMC)? (Choose two.)
A.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is modified.
B.The report file stored in the Input File Report Server (FRS) is not modified.
C.The changes are written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
D.The changes are not written to the Central Management Server (CMS) system database.
Answer:B C

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NO.11 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.12 A user who has always scheduled objects for the Marketing department is leaving your company.
Which method should you use in the Central Management Console (CMC) to ensure that all recurring
instances owned by this user remain in effect but become owned by the Administrator?
A.Disable the departing user then click on the Transfer recurring instances to button and select the
Administrator. Click OK.
B.Delete the departing user; all recurring instances automatically transfer to the Administrator.
C.Open each recurring instance on the object's History tab then click on Schedule for and select
Administrator. Ensure that the instance will use the same recurrence pattern and parameter values.
Delete the departing user when all instances have been duplicated.
D.Download details of all the instances then log on to the CMC as Administrator and schedule them using
the same recurrence patterns and parameter values. Delete the departing user when all instances have
been duplicated.
Answer:B

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NO.13 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Tasha belongs to the Sales Support group. This group was explicitly denied the View Object right on the
Sales folder. Tasha needs to view objects in the Reports sub-folder of the Sales folder. What change
should you make?
A.Change the Sales Support group's access rights on the Sales folder to View.
B.Change Tasha's access rights to View.
C.Explicitly grant Full Control to Tasha.
D.Explicitly grant the View Object right to the Sales Support group which disables inheritance.
Answer:A

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NO.15 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.17 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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NO.18 Your user groups have different functional needs and your managers would rather employ a more
complicated user group structure than create additional folder levels. What approach should you use to
create a content plan that combines logical report organization and functional user access levels?
A.Use the logical-functional group method.
B.Grant each user advanced rights to each object.
C.Use the functional-folder method.
D.Create a logical content plan.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Assume you are using InfoView and need to locate a specific Web Intelligence report, but you cannot
remember its name. There are 15 Web Intelligence reports in the system and you have access to all
root-level folders. What would be the best way to locate the report?
A.Browse the folders and categories
B.Filter
C.Report off the CMS database
D.Use the Advanced feature of the Search function
Answer:D

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NO.20 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: SABE501V
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

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NO.9 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

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Code d'Examen: 60-DSFA680
Nom d'Examen: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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NO.1 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.2 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.5 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.6 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.10 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.15 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

Altiris examen   60-DSFA680   60-DSFA680

NO.18 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.19 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

Altiris examen   60-DSFA680   60-DSFA680   60-DSFA680

NO.20 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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Code d'Examen: 050-SEPRODLP-01
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Certified SE Professional in Data Loss Protection)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What requirement do you need to meet if you choose to create a Sample RSA DLP Site during the
installation process?
A.You must enable FIPS encryption on the machine
B.You must have at least 128 GB of RAM available on the machine
C.You must have at least 2 TB of storage available on the machine
D.The Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator must be installed on the same machine
Answer: D

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NO.2 During the installation of RSA DLP, when should you specify a port number to connect to the database
server for RSA DLP?
A.Never
B.Always
C.Only if you require SMTP communication to the server
D.Only if the database administrator provides a static port number to connect to the database
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the four types of RSA DLP Network Appliances?
A.Controller, Sensor, ICAP Server, and Monitor
B.ICAP Server, Sensor, Monitor, and Interceptor
C.Sensor, ICAP Server, Investigator, and Controller
D.Controller, Interceptor, Sensor, and ICAP Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which RSA DLP deployment requires the use of the Enterprise Coordinator?
A.RSA DLP Network
B.RSA DLP Integrator
C.RSA DLP Datacenter
D.RSA DLP Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.5 What is the minimum length for the Enterprise Manager admin account password?
A.6 characters
B.8 characters
C.10 characters
D.There is no minimum requirement
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which database software is used by the RSA DLP Enterprise Manager to store configuration files,
incidents and events?
A.Oracle
B.Sybase
C.Microsoft SQL Server
D.RSA Proprietary
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the name of the log file that is stored in the /temp directory once a RSA DLP installation has
completed, which provides a summary of the installation?
A.Install.log
B.Config.log
C.Messages.log
D.RSA DLPInstall.log
Answer: D

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   certification 050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.8 What is the default login name used to access the Enterprise Manager?
A.Root
B.Admin
C.System
D.Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which security permission does the Domain Admin user require when installing the Enterprise
Manager?
A.Root
B.System admin
C.Run as a service
D.Run as an admin
Answer: C

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   certification 050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.10 What is the default selection for components to include when installing the Enterprise Manager
software?
A.Enterprise Manager only
B.Enterprise Coordinator only
C.Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator
D.No components are selected by default
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CRISC
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control)
Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

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Code d'Examen: SC0-402
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC))
Questions et réponses: 275 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings and they already have
personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.3 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-402 examen   SC0-402

NO.4 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

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NO.7 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-402 examen   certification SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.8 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

SCP examen   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.9 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402   certification SC0-402

NO.10 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.11 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

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NO.12 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

SCP examen   SC0-402   certification SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.13 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402   certification SC0-402

NO.14 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

SCP   SC0-402   certification SC0-402   SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.15 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

SCP   certification SC0-402   SC0-402

NO.16 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

certification SCP   SC0-402 examen   SC0-402   certification SC0-402

NO.17 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

SCP   certification SC0-402   SC0-402   certification SC0-402

NO.18 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-402   SC0-402 examen   SC0-402 examen

NO.19 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

SCP   SC0-402   certification SC0-402   SC0-402 examen

NO.20 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A10
Nom d'Examen: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)
Questions et réponses: 142 Q&As

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.2 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.3 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.5 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.6 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

NO.7 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

CIPS   certification A10   A10   A10

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Code d'Examen: FM0-306
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

FileMaker   certification FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.2 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.3 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

FileMaker   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306

NO.4 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

FileMaker examen   FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.6 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.8 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306 examen

NO.9 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.10 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

FileMaker examen   FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.12 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

FileMaker examen   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.13 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.14 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.15 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

FileMaker examen   FM0-306   certification FM0-306   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306

NO.16 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-306   FM0-306 examen   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.17 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-306   FM0-306   FM0-306

NO.20 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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