Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-106, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-106
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address
space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D

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NO.2 When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are
expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between sitesDistributing the customer? routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: BCE

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.3 What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional
Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: AE

Alcatel-Lucent examen   certification 4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.5 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent examen   4A0-106   certification 4A0-106   certification 4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.6 What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: ABD

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106

NO.7 In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: ABC

Alcatel-Lucent examen   certification 4A0-106   4A0-106   4A0-106 examen

NO.8 Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to
____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106 examen   4A0-106

NO.9 Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: ABE

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-106   4A0-106   4A0-106

NO.10 Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured
with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for
exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-700
Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.2 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

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NO.3 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.8 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

3COM   certification 3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700 examen   3M0-700 examen

NO.10 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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NO.11 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

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NO.13 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.14 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.16 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.17 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

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NO.20 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.1 What would be used to determine the collectability of accounts receivable balances?
A. The file of related shipping documents.
B. Negative accounts receivable confirmations.
C. Positive accounts receivable confirmations.
D. An aged accounts receivable listing.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following would be an appropriate improvement to controls over large
quantities of consumable material that are charged to expense when placed in bins which are
accessible to production workers?
A. Relocate bins to the inventory warehouse.
B. Require management to compare the cost of consumable items used to the budget.
C. Lock the bins during normal working hours.
D. None of the above actions are needed for items of minor cost and size.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a weakness that is inherent in the use of the test data method to
test internal controls in a computer-based accounting system?
A. The auditor must test many transactions with the same condition in order to achieve assurance
that the condition is being detected.
B. Conditions that were not specifically considered by the auditor may go untested.
C. The approach requires the creation of "dummy companies," possibly destroying or altering actual
company data in the process.
D. Inclusion of atypical data in the test data may cause errors to be noted on the exception report.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a
credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The most effective way for internal auditors to enhance the reliability of computerized
financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I.The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.
II.The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a
corporate directive to implement it.
III.Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization's increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to an
organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization's checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Answer: A

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.9 A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from
raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the objective of a pollution prevention audit
engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following
opportunities be considered?
I.Recycling and reuse.
II.Elimination at the source.
III.Energy conservation.
IV.Recovery as a usable product.
Treatment.
A. V, II, IV, I, III.
B. IV, II, I, III, V.
C. I, III, IV, II, V.
D. III, IV, II, V, I.
Answer: B

IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.10 When internal auditors provide consulting services, the scope of the engagement is primarily
determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity's charter.
Answer: C

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2 examen

NO.11 During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold
pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six
months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the
auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on
the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require
adjustment.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.12 An audit of management's quality program includes testing the accuracy of the cost-of-quality
reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of
this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   certification IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.13 Which of the following would be most helpful to a governmental auditor searching for the
existence of multiple welfare claims that were filed under different names but used the same
address?
A. Tagging and tracing.
B. Generalized audit software.
C. Integrated test facility.
D. Spreadsheet analysis.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2 examen   IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.14 An organization's internal auditors are reviewing production costs at a gas-powered electrical
generating plant. They identify a serious problem with the accuracy of carbon dioxide emissions
reported to the environmental regulatory agency, due to computer errors. The auditors should
immediately report the concern to:
A. The regulatory agency.
B. Plant management.
C. A plant health and safety officer.
D. The risk management function.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part2   certification IIA-CIA-Part2

NO.15 An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in
the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging
strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is
also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following
should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement
user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the
vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Answer: D

certification IIA   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2   IIA-CIA-Part2

SPSS IBMSPSSMBPDA examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: IBMSPSSMBPDA
Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler - Business Partner Data Analyst Associate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 Which node can be used to easily generate a field that divides the data into subsamples for
the training and testing stages of modeling?
A. Sample
B. Filler
C. Balance
D. Partition
Answer: D

certification SPSS   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA
Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p.176.

NO.2 System undefined values ($null$) are automatically defined as blank (missing) values in IBM
SPSS Modeler.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

SPSS   IBMSPSSMBPDA   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA
Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProcess OutputNodes.pdf - p.122

NO.3 Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?
A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of other Travel fields.
B. No operation will be performed because the express is invalid.
C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcctEst and each of the travel fields.
D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @ FIELD value.
Answer: C

SPSS   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA

NO.4 The matrix model is used to examine the relationship between the categorical fields.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SPSS   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen

NO.5 Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?
A. Var. File
B. Data Collection
C. Fixed File
D. Statistics File
Answer: A

certification SPSS   IBMSPSSMBPDA   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA
Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p.18

NO.6 A prison system has historical data on prison inmates and wants to find what factors are
related to recidivism (return to prison). What type of model would be used?
A. Segmentation model
B. Classification model
C. Association model
D. Anomaly model
Answer: B

certification SPSS   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA
Explanation:
A classification model is tested by applying it to test data with known target values and comparing
the predicted values with the known values.
The test data must be compatible with the data used to build the model and must be prepared in
the same way that the build data was prepared. Typically the build data and test data come from
the same historical data set. A percentage of the records is used to build the model; the remaining
records are used to test the model.
Test metrics are used to assess how accurately the model predicts the known values. If the model
performs well and meets the business requirements, it can then be applied to new data to predict
the future.

NO.7 The optional binning method in the Binning node uses a Supervisor field to determine the
binning cut points.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SPSS examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen
Reference:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf

NO.8 Which of the following types of nodes will have data flowing both in and out, when used in a
stream?
A. Record Ops
B. Graphs
C. Export
D. Process
Answer: D

SPSS examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   IBMSPSSMBPDA examen   certification IBMSPSSMBPDA
Explanation:
ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2 /en/SourceProces
s OutputNodes.pdf - p. 413 see process supernodes)

Certification SAP de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen P-ADM-SEC-70, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: P-ADM-SEC-70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock
market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum
handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on
auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the
Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note:
There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed
with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

SAP   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen

NO.3 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory
server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now
there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following
statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory
server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory
server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP
specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA
and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

SAP examen   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.4 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service
check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.5 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user
data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link
Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central
system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be
collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction
SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

SAP examen   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.6 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver
Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen

NO.7 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task
that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for
different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

SAP   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.9 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS
Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

certification SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the
URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone
(DMZ).
Answer: A,E

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70 examen   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.12 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP
Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to
administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   certification P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.14 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential
loss.
Answer: D

SAP   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70   certification P-ADM-SEC-70

NO.15 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups
required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this
communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message
server.
Answer: A,B,D

SAP   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   certification P-ADM-SEC-70   P-ADM-SEC-70

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Code d'Examen: C-EPMBPC-70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 For which scenario is it impossible to use the work status?
A. To allow or disallow a user to modify data
B. To lock a region of data in an Application
C. To lock a step in a Business Process Flow
D. To track the status of a planning process
Answer: C

SAP   C-EPMBPC-70   C-EPMBPC-70

NO.2 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
A. Via Work Status
B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
Answer: A

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NO.3 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.4 What settings do you need for Source Account to calculate the liability account 'annual
net income'
(ANI)?
A. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, do not reverse sign
B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver?
A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation.
B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a
dimension.
C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member.
D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What actions are possible with work status?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Using it only with entity and time type dimensions
B. Bypassing it while executing a data management package
C. Linking it to multiple hierarchies for an Application
D. Launching it from the content library
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application?
A. Category
B. Account
C. Time
D. Entity
Answer: A

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NO.8 Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes?
A. At Appset level in Admin Console
B. At Appset level in Web Admin
C. At Application level in Admin Console
D. At Application level in Web Admin
Answer: D

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NO.9 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business
rule when there
is no subtable type dimension in the Application?
A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin
parameters without
entering the required parameters?
A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
Answer: B

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NO.11 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
Answer: D

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NO.13 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changing documents type but not document subtype
B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for
NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What fields are required to eliminate the investment when using the 'All Formula'?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Source Account
B. Destination Group Account
C. Destination Equity Account
D. Destination Minority Interest
E. Destination All Account
Answer: A,E

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Code d'Examen: C-TADM53-70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (System Administration (MS SQL DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 The customer has decided to implement a three system landscape for SAP ECC 6.0. A
lot of
customizing and development work must be done before the SAP landscape goes live.
Someone has
recommended using virtual systems in the beginning, instead of buying physical hardware.
Which
statements regarding virtual systems are true? (Choose three)
A. Virtual systems are used to save money in the beginning of a project. Another side-effect
is that the
productive SAP system can always be installed on the newest hardware technology.
B. Virtual systems are mainly used to simulate the correctness of transport routes.
C. The <SID> of the virtual system should be the same as the planned physical system.
D. Virtual systems are used in the transport environment like physical systems. Transport
buffers,
command files and data files are created.
E. Virtual systems in the SAP transport environment are only used together with hypervisor
technologies
from different third-party vendors.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following terms are correlated to the (ABAP-based) SAP system
monitoring infrastructure?
(Choose two)
A. Alert Memory
B. Alert Server
C. Data Supplier
D. Monitoring Tree Element
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You want to use the Change and Transport System (CTS) to perform transports of non-
ABAP objects
into non-ABAP systems. Which configuration settings are necessary for this?
A. The transport domain controller system must be based on SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 SP
Stack 12 or
higher.
B. You must use client-dependent transport routes for all systems in your transport domain.
C. You need to adjust certain tp parameters for the non-ABAP systems in question.
D. The CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
(Choose two)
A. Programs
B. Buffer areas
C. Screens (Dynpros)
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which program, on the operating system level, performs and controls transports
between ABAP based
SAP-systems? Note that this program is controlled by your actions, for example in
transactions SE09
(Transport Organizer) and STMS (Transport Management System).
A. transport.exe
B. RDDIMPDP.bat
C. import.exe
D. RDDEXPPP.exe
E. tp.exe
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding the client concept and the client copy tools
in ABAP-based
SAP Systems (for example, SAP ECC) are true? (Choose three)
A. Application data can only be copied from one client to another, when all client-specific
customizing is
also copied.
B. Clients can be copied between SAP Systems of the same release.
C. Client-independent customizing is always automatically copied between clients.
D. User master records cannot be copied between clients.
E. Clients can be copied within a single SAP System.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based
monitoring are true?
(Choose two)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by
CCMS
monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched
by using
operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own
monitor
definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the
'System change option'
in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two)
A. Not modifiable
B. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
C. Original objects modifiable
D. Repaired objects modifiable
E. Modifiable
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which of the following statements concerning the Change and Transport System are
correct? (Choose two)
A. The transport directory is given by the parameter DIR_TRANS.
B. Small corrections on ABAP programs can be done safely in the production system.
C. Newly created (and empty) customizing change requests always have one or more tasks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 After the installation of an SAP ECC 6.0 three-system landscape, you plan to apply a
Support Package
stack to the Development system. Which statements concerning support packages for ABAP
based SAP
Systems are true? (Choose two)
A. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with STMS
in the client
000.
B. If there are modification adjustments necessary, transaction SPAM does not start the
import. You need
to perform these adjustments before importing the Support Package.
C. To use the SPAM, a valid transport landscape must have been created.
D. To use the SPAM transaction, you need to configure the transport environment with
transaction STMS
in the client 066 with user DDIC.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 After establishing a three-system landscape transport environment for SAP systems
based on AS ABAP,
a developer has released a transport request in the DEV system. You now receive a mail
with the
transport request number from the developer and your job is to import this request into the
QAS system.
However, even after pressing the refresh button several times, the import queue of the QAS
systems
seems to be empty. Which of the following are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose
two)
A. The systems DEV and QAS belong to different transport groups.
B. The repository objects in this transport request belong to a package (formerly development
class) that
points to a transport layer, which in turn does not point to the QAS system.
C. You do not have the necessary authorizations to refresh the import queue of the QAS
system.
D. A virtual system exists in your transport landscape. Once you have a virtual system in your
transport
landscape the import buffers are empty.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Concerning some (CCMS) monitoring terminology, which of the following statements
are correct?
(Choose three)
A. Each MTE can only be used in exactly one customer-defined monitor definition at a time.
B. Each monitoring attribute is assigned to exactly one monitoring object.
C. A monitoring attribute is also a monitoring tree element (MTE).
D. A monitoring object can have more than one assigned monitoring attribute.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based
on AS ABAP (for
example, SAP ECC).?
A. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the
new client
using the client copy tool.
B. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.
C. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of
the user
initiating the copy.
D. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously,
from one SAP
System to multiple other SAP systems in a single action.
E. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which features are created automatically once you define a transport domain controller
in an
(ABAP-based) SAP landscape? (Choose four)
A. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the file system.
B. The TMS configuration is stored in the database and the file system.
C. The transport profile for the transport control program tp is generated in the database.
D. The user TMSADM is created.
E. The RFC destinations required for the TMS are generated.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.15 How many clients can exist per AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The maximum numberis 1000 clients per SAP system
B. As many as you want
C. The number of clients per system is limited to 500
Answer: A

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