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Code d'Examen: CA0-001
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Certified Associate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 525 Q&As

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NO.1 Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation
through project closure?
A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-Location
Answer: D

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NO.4 During what process is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C

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NO.6 On what is project baseline development established?
A. Approved product requirements
B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
Answer: B

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NO.7 While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will
delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying
tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes
needed to meet its requirements?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning
Answer: C

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NO.10 The projectt management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:
A. Always be applied uniformly
B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and
who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions
B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is
improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Answer: D

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NO.15 Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is
effective and current?
A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How is quality control performed?
A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining
corrective actions as needed.
C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure
conformance to quality standards.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
Answer: A

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NO.21 The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B

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NO.22 A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of
today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.
What is the cost variance?
A. -$700
B. -$200
C. +$200
D. +$500
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
D. Project Selection Methods
Answer: A

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NO.24 How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking
Answer: A

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NO.26 Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner. What is an output from information distribution?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities.
B. Performing the activities included in the plan.
C. Developing and maintaining the plan.
D. Execution of deliverables.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Answer: C

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NO.29 As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total
project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B

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NO.30 What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewart-Deming
D. Delphi
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: FM0-303
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 9)
Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 In FileMaker Pro 9, which two statements about portals are true? (Choose two.)
A. Container fields can be placed in portals.
B. The initial row setting of a portal can be set by a script.
C. A sort order applied to a portal overrides any sort order set up for the relationship.
D. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the portal
closest to the top, left corner of the layout.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which two of the following statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips are not visible in Preview mode.
B. Tooltip text can only incorporate indexed/stored data.
C. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object (excluding parts).
D. Tooltips created in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced can be edited in FileMaker Pro 9, but not added or
deleted.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A user can install FileMaker Server, the Web Publishing Engine, and all of the associated software
components on the same machine as the web server. Which two of the following groups of ports must
be open to provide database services, web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console?
(Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of bytes available in a FileMaker Pro 9 text field?
A. 64 megabytes
B. 1 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 4 gigabytes
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A user wants to build a FileMaker Pro 9 database that models a business organizational chart. One
person may manage zero or more people. One person may be managed by, at most, one other person.
The user wants to build the system in such a way that a single layout about a person can display the
name of the current person's manager as well as a portal of the people managed by the current person
(as shown in the Exhibit).
Assume that there are no lookup fields, calculation fields, or fields with auto-entered calculations defined
in any table, and there are no scripts in the file.
What is the minimum number of table occurrences that must be used to construct the layout?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the theoretical maximum limits of file size and record count in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 8 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
B. 64 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
C. 2 gigabytes file size and 100 million records
D. 8 terabytes file size and 64 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two of the following are true about the Data Viewer in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. It always displays the values of all global variables defined in a file.
B. It can only be accessed by users with the [Full Access] privilege set.
C. It can be used to manually change the value of a variable during debugging of a script.
D. It automatically displays the values of fields referenced by calculations used in the currently running
script.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a single record's text
field in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 2 billion
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.10 Script A:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Go To Layout ["Layout1"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Perform Script ["Script B"]
Go To Layout ["Layout2"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Script B:
Go To Layout ["Layout3"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Allow User Abort [On]
Go to Layout "Layout4"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
When Script A is run, on which layout(s) will both the "Continue" and "Cancel" buttons be displayed
during the Pause/Resume script steps? (Assume the Status Area is visible.)
A. Layout4
B. Layout1 and Layout3
C. Layout1 and Layout2
D. Layout2 and Layout4
E. Layout1, Layout2, and Layout3
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one referenced field to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. Using Unicode as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to be case
sensitive.
E. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which of the following is a likely reason why a file converted from FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9
may open slowly?
A. Use of repeating fields
B. Obsolete data sources
C. Using outdated script steps
D. Having to resolve 2-digit year dates
Answer: B

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NO.13 When publishing FileMaker 9 files for web access, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In order to work with a FileMaker Pro database via Instant Web Publishing, a user's web browser must
have JavaScript enabled.
B. In order to access a FileMaker Pro database using Instant Web Publishing, a user account must have
the [fmiwp] extended privilege enabled.
C. A FileMaker Pro database may be configured for access via either Custom Web Publishing with XML
OR Custom Web Publishing with PHP, but not both.
D. A FileMaker Pro database hosted via Instant Web Publishing using the FileMaker Pro or FileMaker Pro
Advanced client can only be accessed by programs and users on the same computer.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about the [Guest] account that is included by default when creating a
new FileMaker Pro 9 database? (Choose two.)
A. It is not enabled.
B. It cannot be deleted.
C. It can log in without entering a password.
D. It can log in using Instant Web Publishing without entering either a username or password.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Given: A one-to-many relationship from Planet to Moon. Which two formulas could be used as a
calculation field in the Planet table to return the name of the last related Moon record? (Choose two.)
A. Max (Planet::Name)
B. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Count (Planet::Name))
C. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Max (Planet::Name))
D. Let ( planetList = List (Planet::Name) ;
GetValue (planetList ; ValueCount (planetList)))
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which three functions can be performed using the Save Records As PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. Append to an existing PDF file
B. Add a password to an existing PDF file
C. Specify the magnification for the initial view
D. Enable the copying of text, images, and other content
E. Set the color scale of the document to Black & White
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three of the following actions in FileMaker Pro 9 will directly trigger a FileMaker Pro 6 database
to be converted? (Choose three.)
A. Open the FileMaker Pro 6 file
B. Import / access data from the file
C. Import / access a value list from the file
D. Use the Convert File script step on the file
E. Drag and drop the file onto the FileMaker Pro 9 icon
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 When importing table schema and data using FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced, which statement is true?
A. Privileges from the source file are retained
B. Relationships between tables are imported
C. Tables can be imported directly from FileMaker Pro 6 files
D. The user must have [Full Access] privileges to both the source and destination files
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which elements of a FileMaker file should be reviewed for behavior consistency after converting from
FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose four.)
A. Record locking
B. Repeating fields
C. Calculation results
D. Instant Web Publishing settings
E. Scripts set to perform When opening this file in File Options
Answer: ACDE

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NO.21 Which three statements are true about FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 8 file.
B. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 6 file.
C. It will retain internal IDs for fields when importing tables.
D. It can copy/paste script steps, scripts, fields, and tables.
E. It can import relationships and table occurrences from FileMaker Pro 9 files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.22 Which of the following are supported in FileMaker 9 as External ODBC Data Sources?
A. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server Express, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
B. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
C. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
D. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.23 On conversion to FileMaker Pro 9, what does the old password from a FileMaker Pro 6 file become?
A. A privilege set
B. Only the account name
C. Only the account password
D. Both an account name and account password
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which software is required to share FileMaker data via ODBC to remote clients?
A. FileMaker Server 9
B. FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced
C. FileMaker Server 9 Advanced
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Pro 9
Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X 10.4.8
B. Mac OS X 10.3.9
C. Windows Vista Ultimate
D. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 1)
E. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 2)
Answer: ACE

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NO.26 Which two statements are correct regarding the FileMaker Pro 9 batch conversion process when
converting files from FileMaker Pro 6? (Choose two.)
A. A .fp7 extension is added to filenames that do not have file extensions.
B. Existing files are automatically suffixed with 'Old' (i.e., Customer Old.fp5).
C. A prompt is displayed asking where the converted files should be created.
D. Multiple files converted at the same time will be copied into one file with multiple tables.
E. A solution organized with files in nested folders should be converted one level at a time starting with the
files in the highest level / folder.
Answer: AC

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NO.27 How many simultaneous Instant Web Publishing sessions can FileMaker Server 9 Advanced host?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
Answer: B

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NO.28 For FileMaker Pro 9 files that are opened (i.e. to resolve a relationship) and where the window
remains hidden, which statement is true about a script set to perform when opening this file?
A. It will not execute.
B. It will execute as soon as the file is opened.
C. It will execute as soon as the file's first window is drawn.
D. It will execute when the file is opened only if the script has the run script with full access privileges
option enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.29 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

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NO.30 A layout showing records from a People table has the Save record changes automatically check box
disabled in the Layout Setup dialog.
Which two actions cause FileMaker Pro 9 to display a dialog asking whether or not you want to save
changes to the current record? (Choose two.)
A. Importing records into the People table
B. Editing a field value on the layout and attempting to commit the record
C. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[No Dialog] script step
D. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[Skip data entry validation] script step
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: VCP-310
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI3)
Questions et réponses: 435 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are required for installing VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. the server must be a physical machine
B. the operating system must be Windows
C. the server can be a physical or a virtual machine
D. the operating system can be Windows or Linux
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which statement is true about VCB proxy?
Select the best response.
A. It must be set to assign Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
B. It must be set to prevent assignment of Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
C. When running under Linux, it has no concept of Windows drive letter mappings.
D. It assigns Windows drive letters to Raw Device Mapped LUNs that are assigned to Windows virtual
machines.
Answer: B

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NO.3 For a cluster with two ESX hosts, one using Intel processors and other using AMD processors, which
of the following statements is true? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMotion can move live VMs from one host to another
B. VMware DRS can load balance live VMs among hosts
C. Storage VMotion can move a virtual machine disk file from one storage device to another
D. VMware HA can failover VMS from one host to another in case of a host failure
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What are two characteristics of VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. LAN-free backups of virtual machines can be performed
B. A plugin integrates the VCB UI into VirtualCenter
C. Image-level backups of virtual machines can be performed
D. File-level backups of Windows and Linux virtual machines can be performed
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What is the advantage of installing backup client software in a Linux virtual machine's guest OS?
Select the best response.
A. This configuration enables immediate booting from a restored virtual machine.
B. This configuration enables LAN-free backup.
C. This configuration enables ESX Server to do backup and restore operations.
D. This configuration enables individual files to be selected for backup or restore.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.

NO.7 Which two conditions can cause a combined VMware DRS/HA cluster to change to a red status?
(Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The current failover capacity is smaller than the configured capacity.
B. All the primary hosts in the cluster are not responding.
C. A DRS-only host has been added to an HA cluster.
D. DRS is in the process of balancing resources among hosts in the cluster when an HA event occurs.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which of the following conditions can prevent a virtual machine (VM) that is part of a VMware HA
cluster from being powered on? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Guaranteed admission control cannot allocate sufficient CPU reservation for the VM.
B. The VM has been configured with a virtual disk on local storage.
C. Strict admission control is configured and insufficient resources are available for the VM.
D. There is a mismatch in CPU capabilities between one or more HA cluster nodes.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC

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NO.10 These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
Select the best response.
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines
on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A

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4. Which of the following is a benefit of ESX Server 3i over ESX Server?
Select the best response.
A. Increased Security and Reliability
B. Memory Overcommitment
C. Improved Fault Isolation
D. Dynamic Resource Allocation
Answer: A

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5. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

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6. How does VMware Server 2 differ from ESX Server 3.5?
Select the best response.
A. VMware Server 2 supports legacy operating systems and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
B. VMware Server 2 enhances software development and testing and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
C. VMware Server 2 runs on a Linux host and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
D. VMware Server 2 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How does ESX Server 3.5 differ from VMware Server 2?
Select the best response.
A. ESX Server 3.5 supports virtual machine clusters on the host server and VMware Server 2 does not.
B. ESX Server 3.5 accesses SAN storage and VMware Server 2 does not.
C. ESX Server 3.5 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and VMware Server 2 does not.
D. ESX Server 3.5 deploys a virtual machine from a template and VMware Server 2 does not.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.

NO.13 In configuring a VMware HA Cluster the System Administrator can configure Admission Control.
There are two options: Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints, or Allow
Virtual Machines to be powered on even if they violate availability constraints. If the System
Administrator chooses the option "Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints"
then which of the following apply? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware HA enforces the failover capacity defined for the cluster.
B. Only Virtual Machines with a high restart priority will be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
C. VMware HA restarts VM's on surviving host with the most unreserved capacity.
D. Virtual Machines running on failed ESX hosts will not be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which of the following situations will result in VMware HA restarting virtual machines? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. An ESX Server in the cluster becomes isolated from the network.
B. A guest OS is manually powered off.
C. A guest OS fails.
D. An ESX Server in the cluster is put into Maintenance mode.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 An ESX Administrator is configuring a VMware High Availability Cluster for three hosts and their
resident VMs. The HA cluster will be configured to support a single host failure and resource
considerations must be enforced during a failover event. To accomplish this task:
Select the best response.
A. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the highest CPU limit value
B. There must be enough cluster resources based on memory and CPU reservations to account for any
potential host failure
C. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the largest configured available
memory
D. All potential remaining hosts during a failure event must be able to accommodate the sum total of all
VMs' available memory configurations
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESX Server 3.x instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines.
B. VMware Server 2 does not support running virtual machines in a production environment.
C. The company wants the ability to use VMotion.
D. ESX Server 3.x offers better resource management and better performance.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment
and requirements are:
1. The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
2. The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
3. Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the
same time.

NO.18 Which of the following are requirements for a VMware HA cluster? (Choose Two)
A. a private Ethernet network for all hosts
B. access to shared storage from all hosts
C. access to the virtual machine networks from all hosts
D. identical type and quantity of CPUs in each host
Answer: BC

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NO.19 What are two advantages of VCB over conventional agent-based methods of backing up a virtual
machine's (VM's) data? (Choose Two)
A. helps to eliminate the need for a backup window by using an online, snapshot-based backup
B. makes it possible to do both file-based and full-system backup of the same VM simultaneously
C. enables LAN-free backup and avoids undue overloading of the datacenter network
D. allows selection of files and directories from the guest file system of any VM
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which of the following files are part of a typical virtual machine?
Select 3 response(s).
A. Virtual Disk File (.vmdk)
B. Configuration File (.vmx)
C. VMotion Transfer File (.vmt)
D. Hardware File (.svr)
E. BIOS File (.nvram)
Answer: ABE

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Code d'Examen: VCP511
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))
Questions et réponses: 288 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.13 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.17 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.19 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Code d'Examen: VCPVCD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - IaaS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator needs to store a multi-VM vApp in a vCloud so that others can easily deploy.
Where should the administrator store this item?
A. In the Content Management System.
B. In an organization catalog.
C. On the vCD cell s local storage.
D. On the primary data store.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs a list of all hosts and statuses across all Provider vDCs in a vCloud Director
environment. Where will the administrator find this information?
A. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the System tab
B. In the Host Status report of vCenter Chargeback
C. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the Administration tab
D. In the Host settings section of each organization
Answer: A

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NO.3 A virtual machine in the QA Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Research
Organization. When creating a Static Route, which two pieces of information are required (Choose Two)?
A. The Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) address
B. The address of the next hop
C. The subnet address of the target network
D. The address of the target vShield device
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 An administrator is unable to connect to the Internet from within the cloud..The administrator suspects
the firewall setting is causing the issue.
Which troubleshooting step should the user take first?
A. Open Configure Services for the External Network
B. Open Configure Services for the External Routed Organizational network
C. Open Configure Services for the vShield Edge device
D. Open Configure Services for the External Direct Organizational network
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator has scheduled a report to run at 8 PM nightly and has configured a number of
recipients to receive the report. After the report runs, the administrator discovers that a link to the report
was sent to the recipients, not the report itself. Why did this occur?
A. vCenter Chargeback cannot support attachments via email.
B. The report size was larger than the size limit configured for the SMTP server.
C. vCenter Chargevack was configured to send links instead of attachments.
D. The SMTP server was configured not to accept attachments.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A user has been assigned a single external IP address that connects to the Internet. The user has a
vApp containing 4 VMs deployed in the Organization VDC. Which technology will allow a user s VMs to
accept incoming traffic the Internet?
A. Firewall Rules
B. Port Forwarding
C. IP Translation
D. 1:1 NAT
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
ACME has a Web Server virtual machine with an IP Address of 192.168.0.27. It is not responding to
incoming customer requests on either internal or external networks. The network is an External Routed
network with the firewall rules displayed in the exhibit.
Which configuration change would correct this behavior?
A. Enable the Outgoing Web Services rule.
B. Enable the ACME External Internet rule
C. Change the IP Address of the Outgoing Web Services rule to 192.168.0.17
D. Delete the Outgoing Web Services rule
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where must an administrator place sysprep files in order for Guest OS Customizations to work on all
supported versions of Windows?
A. On the VM during vApp creation.
B. On the vCD management cluster.
C. In a specific location on all vCD Cells.
D. In a specific location on the vCenter Servers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator needs to configure a vShield Edge device that allows for incoming pings.
Which two steps would allow incoming pings? (Choose two.)
A. The rule must have the Log network traffic for firewall rule setting checked.
B. A rule must be created that allows for outgoing traffic and the UDP protocol.
C. The default rule must be set to Disable.
D. A rule must be created that allows for incoming traffic and the ICMP protocol.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Due to diminishing capacity, an ESXi host is added to a cluster that supports a cloud environment.
A vCloud Administrator notices that newly created VMs created through vCD are not utilizing the host
resource. What is the reason for this?
A. An inventory synchronization was not performed after the new host was added to the cluster.
B. The host was not manually added to an organizational vDC before it was utilized.
C. The host was not prepared to be part of the vCD environment.
D. DRS was not enabled on the cluster providing resources to the vCD environment.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator receives the error:
Unable to create vShield Edge VM
while using the Reset Network function on vApp or Organizational Networks. What is the cause of this
error?
A. The vApp or Organizational Network name is too long.
B. The vShield Edge VM resource pool is out of resources.
C. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCD.
D. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCenter.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which core vSphere feature can be used to improve the availability of vShield components?
A. VM Monitoring
B. vCenter Server Heartbeat
C. Fault Tolerance
D. HA Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator is auditing IP address use in a specific Organizational Network.
Where will the administrator find this information?
A. The administrator can run a Global IP Allocation report
B. The information can be located in the IP Allocation properties for the specific Organizational Network
C. The information can be located in the System Properties of the Organizational Network
D. The administrator can run an IP Allocation report for the specific Organizational Network
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator needs to configure a vSphere environment to support a vCloud network architecture
providing for automatic provisioning of network pools.
Which step must be taken in order to successfully configure Port Group Isolation?
A. vShield Edge component must be added between the External Network and the virtual switch.
B. VLAN/PVLAN configuration information must be added to the configuration.
C. A vShield Edge component must be added between the Unprotected Network and the virtual switch.
D. The Virtual Standard Switch must be replaced with a vSphere Distributed Switch.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A vCloud Service Provider is attempting to monitor a vCloud implementation. The service is unavailable
from the Organization network. Firewall rules on the vShield Edge device are set correctly. Why would the
service be unavailable?
A. IP Masquerading rules are not set.
B. NAT is not automatically assigned.
C. Static routing is not enabled.
D. DHCP is not scoped properly.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A vApp is deployed within an internal vApp Network. One VM in the vApp is configured to use NAT.
The vApp is converted to a vApp template and deployed to the Organization. After deploying the vApp,
network connectivity does not function as expected.
What explains this behavior?
A. vApps using NAT require the use of Network Pools.
B. The vApp should be connected to an External Direct network.
C. All virtual machines in a vApp must use the same NAT settings.
D. The vApp NAT configuration settings are lost when a vApp is deployed.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator is updating the system SMTP server settings.
Where will the administrator change this setting?
A. The Email Server settings in the Alerts section of the Administration page.
B. The Email section in the System settings section of the Administration page.
C. The Email Server settings in the Servers section of the Administration page.
D. The Email Services configuration file on each vCD Cell.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A virtual machine in the Finance Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Sales
Organization. The virtual machine in the Finance Organization has been defined with an external IP
address. A static route has been created on the Finance Organization Network.
For communication to successfully occur between these two virtual machines, how many vShield Edge
devices and how many firewall rules would need to be deployed (Choose Two)?
A. 3 vShield Edge devices
B. 2 vShield Edge devices
C. 3 Firewall rules
D. 2 Firewall rules
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 An administrator needs to allow traffic between two different networks within the same
Organization..Traffic on the internal network cannot be compromised.
Where must static routes be configured to enable this functionality?
A. On the source Internal network to the target External Routed network
B. On the source External Direct network to the target network
C. On the source Internal network to the target External Direct network
D. On the source External Routed network to the target network
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: VCP5-DCV
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 327 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and
finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running
a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster
from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the
datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Desktop (VCP510-DT日本語版))
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NO.1 どの 2 つのオペレーテゖング? システムが View Transfer Server の゗ンストールのために
サポートされますか。 (2 つ選んでください。)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 組織は、 パスワ ードだけで達成できないデスクトップのためのより高いレベルのセキ
ュリテゖを要求します。 証明書は認証機関から獲得されました。 また、 スマート? カー ドは
ユーザのために購入されました。
デスクトップ管理者は、Active Directory （AD ） を準備するために、 どの 3 つのタスクを行な
わなければなりませんか。 （3 つ選んでください。 ）
A. 信頼されたルート証明機関グループにユーザー? プリンシパル名を追加する。
B. AD の中のエンタープラ゗ズ NTAuth スト ゕにルート証明書を追加する 。
C. AD の中の信頼されたルート階層にルート証明書を追加する。
D. ユーザーの AD ゕカ ウントにユーザー? プリンシパル名を追加する。
E. AD の中の信頼され たルート証明機関グループ? ポリシーにルート証明書を追加する。
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 どの 2 つのステ ップが View Composer の゗ンストール· プロセスの一部ですか。 （2 つ選
択してください。 ）
A. View Administrator で Enable View Composer のチェックボックスを選択する。
B. vCenter Server シス テムに View Composer を゗ンストールする。
C. Windows システムで View Composer サー ビスを登録する。
D. View Composer デー タベースへの ODBC 接 続を構成する。
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
-Ab Version 5.1 nicht mehr zwingend auf dem vCenter
-braucht eine DB (Oracle oder SQL-Server) inkl. ODBC-DSN

NO.4 View Composer Database は、どの三つの コンポーネントと接続に情報を格納しますか。
（3 つ選んでください。 ）

NO.5 どの TCP ポート は View Transfer Server のフゔ゗ゕウォールの上で開いていなければな
りませんか。
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.6 組織は DomainA における View Connection Server を持っていま す。 DomainB のユーザ ー
はドメ゗ン A 内の既存の接続サーバのデスクトップにゕクセスする必要があります。
DomainB からのユーザ ーは DomainA のデス クトップにゕクセスすることができるために、
システム管理者は Active Directory で何をしなければなりませんか。
A. プロキシにセキュリテゖ? サーバを DomainB への接続に設定する。
B. View Manager のサー バの設定でマルチドメ゗ン認証ボックスをチェックする。
C. DomainB から DomainA まで一方向の信頼 関係をセット? ゕップする。
D. DomainA と DomainB の間で双方向の信頼関係をセット? ゕップする。
Answer: D

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NO.7 VMFS データ? ス トゕを使用する場合に、View Composer によ って使用される vSphere
クラスタ中の ESXi ホストの最大数は何ですか。
A. 4
B. 8
C. 32
D. 16
Answer: B

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Explanation:
From http://myvirtualcloud.net/?p=3245 8 Hosts per Cluster when used with VMFS - did not change
This limit is hard-coded in View Composer; however it comes from a VMFS limitation on the number
of hosts that can simultaneously read from a single VMDK. This VMDK in a VMware View
environment with View Composer would be the Replica disk.

NO.8 どの 2 つのプラ ットフォームは VMware View 5 環境で VMware View Composer によ っ
てサポートされていますか。 （2 つ選択してください。 ）
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 で実行されている VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3
B. Windows XP Pro 64-bit で実行されている VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1
C. Windows Server 2003 64-bit で実行されてい る VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 で実行されている VMware vCenter 5.0
Answer: A,D

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3. 管理者は、初め て View Connection Server 5.x を゗ンストールする準備を しています。
どの 2 つのサーバー先行条件は Windows Server 2003 の上で適当な ゗ンストールのために必
要とされますか。(2 つ選んでください。)
A. コネクション? サーバーと使用するために SSL 証明書を構成する。
B. サーバーの静的な IP ゕドレスを構成する。
C. ゗ンストール用の ドメ゗ン管理者ゕカウントを構成する。
D. 適切なオープンポ ートを持つフゔ゗ゕウォールを構成する。
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
Only on Win 2008 R2 the setup configures Firewall SSL certificate is not required, setup will install a
self signed

NO.9 View Transfer Server は、どれくらいのデゖスクを同時に転送することができますか。
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.10 管理者は、 View Security Server を Windows Server 2003 R2 シス テムに゗ンストールして
います。
リモートゕクセスを有効にするために、どの 3 つの Windows フ ゔ゗ゕウォールのポートは
゗ンストール前に予め設定されなければなりませんか。 （3 つ選択してください。 ）
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Change from B/D to C/E b'c if you install a security server at least port 443 must be open from
untrusted to the security server and from the DMZ to internal ports 4001 and 8009 RDP (3389)
don't have to be opened, this is tunneled via 443

NO.11 管理者は、以前 のリリースから View Connection Server 5.x にゕップグレードしていま
す。
どのコンポーネントは、ゕップグレードの時に自動的に゗ンストールから省略されますか。
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.12 View Composer のどのセッテゖングが、 仮想デスクトップのプールのストレージ· フッ
トプリントを削減するために使用することができますか。
A. 持続性のないデゖスクに使い捨てのフゔ゗ルをリダ゗レクトする。
B. 持続性のないデゖ スクに一時フゔ゗ルをリダ゗レクトする。
C. 持続性のないデゖ スクにユーザーのプロフゔ゗ル? データをリダ゗レ クトする。
D. 使い捨てのデゖス クの上に Windows プ ロフゔ゗ルを格納する。
Answer: A

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