HP0-P19 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P19

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.4 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.9 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.10 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.11 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.15 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.16 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.18 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.19 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.20 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.21 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.23 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.24 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.25 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.26 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.27 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.29 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.30 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J26

Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

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NO.1 What has the most influence on the response time of a hard disk drive?
A.arbitration
B.host request
C.rotational delay
D.seek time
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A.serial numbers of connected servers
B.SAN switch zoning configurations
C.storage controller operating mode parameters
D.IP addresses of the connected servers
E.World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer:B C

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NO.3 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A.Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B.Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer:B

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NO.4 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A.fabric management service
B.fabric interconnection without merge
C.SAN availability improvement
D.SAN extension across long distances
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A.Timing variables do not need to match.
B.R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C.R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D.R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer:C

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NO.6 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure all
customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A.Card Arrangement
B.Information Extraction
C.Brainstorming
D.Process Mapping
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for a
customer documentation?
A.SAN Health
B.SAN Designer
C.SAN Visibility
D.SAN Navigator
Answer:C

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NO.8 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at a
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two).
A.HP StorageWorks FlexCopy
B.HP Continuous Access EVA
C.additional disks in the EVA
D.HP Virtual Replicator
E.HP Business Copy EVA
Answer:B E

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NO.9 Which features can affect performance in a SAN? (Select three.)
A.cable modes
B.number of ISLs
C.type of LC connector
D.storage array configuration
E.type and capacity of disks used
F.storage access restrictions
Answer:B D E

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NO.10 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less
than 140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A.3:1 to 1:1
B.1:1 to 3:1
C.15:1 to 7:1
D.7:1 to 15:1
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: HP2-061

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )

Questions et réponses: 365 Q&As

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NO.1 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.3 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

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NO.5 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

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NO.7 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.9 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.11 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.12 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.13 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.15 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

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NO.16 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.18 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.20 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.23 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

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NO.24 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.25 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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NO.26 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

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NO.27 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

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NO.29 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.30 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S24

Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System? (Select three.)
A. hot-swappable components
B. height range from 14 to 47U
C. support for very high density hardware
D.perforated front and back doors
E. support for up to 35kW per rack
F. loading capacity up to 1500 pounds (680 kg)
Answer: ACE

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NO.2 What is the recommended tool for configuring iLO 2 settings on new servers?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
C. SmartStart
D. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit (SSST)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

NO.4 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

NO.5 In dual-core processor technologies, which components are duplicated within the single physical
processor chip?
A. execution core and processor cache
B. processor cache and cache controller
C. execution core, processor cache, and cache controller
D. execution core, processor cache, cache controller, and bus interface
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP2-T11

Nom d'Examen: HP (Industry Standard)

Questions et réponses: 142 Q&As

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NO.1 How does the operation of RAID memory differ from RAID 5 disk storage? (Select three)
A. Data is written sequentially to all banks of memory
B. Data is written simultaneously to all banks of memory
C. Existing parity information must be read before calculating the new parity value
D. There is no need to read the existing parity before calculating a new parity value
E. The memory controller writes parity information to a dedicated parity bank of DIMMs
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which statements apply to AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three )
A. Each processor can access only its own memory
B. Requests for memory access are handled by the Northbndge ASIC
C. Each processor can access the full complement of installed memory
D. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors
E. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors
F. Requests for memory access are handled directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport lnk
Answer: ADF

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NO.3 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which system architecture is displayed?
A. Dual Peer I/O Bus (DPIO)
B. Triple Peer I/O Bus (TPIO)
C. Highly Parallel System Architecture (HPSA)
D. Memory and I/O Controller Architecture (MIOC)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which backup type would you recommend if a customer environment requires saving the latest
version of each file?
A. full
B. copy
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.6 What happens if you install a 66MHz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? (Select two)
A. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 32-bit mode
C. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode
D. Any 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards
Answer: AB

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NO.7 The system administrator typically performs a full backup every Monday and incremental backups on
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays In addition, full backups are performed at the end of the week
and at the end of the month
Which GFSterm refers to the monthly full backup?
A. son
B. sister
C. father
D. grandfather
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of nodes supported in a Fibre Channel Switched Fabric (FC-SW)
environment?
A. 125
B. 126
C. 15 million
D. 16 million
Answer: D

HP   HP2-T11   certification HP2-T11   HP2-T11

NO.9 Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) technology uses the same electrical and physical interface as which
technology?
A. IDE
B. ATA
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a characteristic of a PCI-X-based bus?
A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system
B. It is fully backward compatible with conventional PCI devices
C. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system
D. It is compatible with conventional PCI devices only after updating to newer drivers
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which RAID implementation allows for simultaneous failure of multiple drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer asks you for information about the advantages of RAID 6 over other RAID levels What can
you recommend? (Select three)
A. Performance is equivalent to RAID 5 when reading data.
B. It is the most cost-effective of the fault-tolerant RAID solutions.
C. lt has greater faulttolerancethan RAID4, RAID 1+0, or RAID5.
D. It uses the most storage capacity for fault tolerance of all the RAID levels.
E. it is ideal for applications requiring large logical drives with many physical drives.
Answer: ACE

HP   HP2-T11   HP2-T11   HP2-T11   HP2-T11

NO.13 What best describes PCI-X architecture?
A. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
B. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
C. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
D. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the difference between single-ended SCSI and differential SCSI?
A. Single-ended uses twisted pair wires
B. Differential is more susceptible to noise
C. Differential uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
D. Single-ended uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which statement is correct when comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron
processors'?
A. Xeon processors are optimized for parallel execution
B. Opteron processors are optimized for parallel execution
C. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed
D. Xeon processors use an integrated memory controller that operates at core processor speed
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is an advantage of using iSCSI?
A. it enables the use of SCSI cables for Ethernet communications
B. it enables the use of SAS and SATA drives using standard SCSI controllers
C. It overcomes the inability to use shared storage devices in a heterogeneous environment
D. It overcomes the distance limitations associated with standard Fibre Channel storage transport
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which statement best describes PCI Express architecture?
A. Data is sent in parallel
B. Data is sent serially over each link
C. PCI Express has more pins than PCI-X
D. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customer has an existing mission critical database application using approximately 20TB of network
storage and plans to add a web server component to the existing environment to increase the storage by
50% Which tape storage technology would you recommend?
A. Autoloader
B. Travan Tape System
C. business-class library
D. enterprise-class library
Answer: C

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NO.19 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is a characteristic of Double Data Rate (DDR) RAM?
A. sends data every other clock cycle
B. sends data on the rising edge of the clock cycle only
C. sends data on the falling edge of the clock cycle only
D. sends data on both the rising and falling edge of each clock cycle
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y25

Nom d'Examen: HP (Building HP ProCurve Enterprise Mobility Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Which devices provide the data integrity and privacy that create a trusted network infrastructure in an
Enterprise Mobility Solution?
A. RF Manager and sensors.
B. RF Planner and sensors
C. MSM Controllers and APs
D. MSM Controllers and identity Driven Manager (IDM)
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-Y25   certification HP0-Y25

NO.2 During RF planning, why is it necessary to evaluate the types of applications your wireless network
must support?
A. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
encryption.
B. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
wireless threat management.
C. Some applications are more popular, and only a certain number of users are supported by each
wireless AP radio.
D. Some applications require more bandwidth, and each wireless AP radio has a certain amount of
bandwidth.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN plicy?
A. RF Manager might classify your own APs as Rogue APs because their transmit power is too high and
take action against them.
B. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect harmful devices? Locations, instead of drawing on
network detectors' findings. This might make the prediction less accurate.
C. RF Manager might classify legitimate APs owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs and take action
against them.
D. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are implementing a public access solution on the MSM Controller because your company wants to
grant visitors access to the internet. The company has only two VLANs: VLANs 1 for users and VLAN 2
for servers. VLAN 2 also includes the internet connection. You connect the MSM APs and the MSM
Controller's LAN port to VLAN 1 and the controller's internet port to VLAN
2. You must protect the company's workstations on VLAN 1 from unauthorized access by
unauthenticated guests. What must you do no the MSM Controller?
A. Create an unauthenticated user ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the controller.
B. On the VSC for guests, enable the option that terminates WPA at the controller.
C. On the VSC for guests, enable the wireless security filter that limits wireless traffic to the controller.
D. Add an entry to the default site ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the
controller.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A wireless user associates with a VSC. The following settings are configured on the VSC:
Use Ser ice Controller for Authentication = Enabled
Use Ser ice Controller for Access control = Enabled
VSC ingress mapping=SSID
Client data tunnel=Disabled
Wireless security filters=Disabled
HTML authentication= Enabled
VSC egress mapping=Default
In the VSC binding for the group to which the users' AP belong, there is no egress VLAN setting.
The network topology is shown in the exhibit. Which resources are available to the guest before the guest
logs in and becomes an authorized user?
A. resources available on the public Internet.
B. resources available on the public internet and in VLAN 1.
C. resources in VLANs 1, 2, and 3.
D. resources in VLAN 1 only.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are setting up an RF Manager solution for a university that is implementing a new wireless network.
Hackers have tried to compromise the wired network, and you expect attacks to increase exponentially
when the university implements its wireless network. When you configure the intrusion protection setting,
you want to ensure that the sensors can protect against threats on three channels at a time. Which
intrusion protection setting would you select?
A. Block
B. Disrupt
C. Interrupt
D. Disconnect
Answer: C

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NO.7 You must implement access control for your wireless users on a solution-wide level. You have decided
on the access control strategy recommended for guests and have already begun to customize public
access settings. Which option must you select in the VSC for these users?
A. use Service Controller for: Access control (centralized access control)
B. Client data tunnel
C. 802.1X authentication
D. wireless protection set to WPA
Answer: A

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NO.8 Wireless stations in a VSC run voice applications (among other applications). You want voice traffic to
be prioritized as it travels from the AP to the wireless stations. What is needed to meet this requirement?
(select two.)
A. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to VSC very High.
B. WMM adevertising must be enabled on the VSC.
C. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to IP QoS.
D. An IP QoS profile must select the voice traffic and set it to Very High.
E. The wireless stations must support WMM.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 A company is using 802.1X authentication with dynamic VLANs on its wired network. The company has
three user groups that are assigned to VLANs 10, 20, and 30. You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility
Solution with an MSM760 Access Controller and 50 APs. On the MSM
Controller, you have configured a VSC that enforces 802.1X authentication. How do you continue to
create a consistent experience for users on wired and wireless connections?
A. Bind the VSC to the APs' group with VLANs 10, 20, and 30 as egress VLANs.
B. Enable the dynamic VLANs option in the VSC, and bind the VSC to the APs' group.
C. Configure VLANs 10, 20 and 30 on the MSM APs' bridge ports, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for
each VLAN.
D. Bind the VSC to the APs' group, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for VLANs 10, 20, and 30.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility Solution for a company that is concerned about
employees picking up viruses on their laptops and the introducing those viruses into the network when
they connect wirelessly. To deal with this issue, you are planning to deploy IDM and Windows Access
Protection (NAP) as an endpoint integrity solution. Which method of implementing access control on the
VSC provides the best option to meet this requirement?
A. Public access control.
B. Centralized access control.
C. 802.1X-based access control.
D. Health-based access control.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP2-E28

Nom d'Examen: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.2 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.4 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.8 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: Hp2-H05

Nom d'Examen: HP (Design & Implementation of HP Thin Client Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session
Allocation Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.2 Name the tool that:
-supports HP thin clients
-is included with every HP thin client
-does not require a license
-provides easy-to-use, scalable image deployment and recovery for SMB environments
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Image manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
D. HP Client Automation (HPCA)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which remote protocol has a client implementation on all major operating systems?
A. HP RGS
B. Citrix ICA
C. MS RDP
D. X Display Manager Control Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the mail-in warranty turnaround time for HP thin clients sent to HP for repair?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: D

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NO.5 The HP Compaq Thin Client Boot Order Change Tool enables you to change the boot order of a
thin client remotely. What is the correct Linux command to set the boot order as USB/
Flash/Network?
A. ./hpbootorder -uhn
B. ./hpbootorder -oufn
C. hpbootorder.exe -uhn
D. hpbootorder.exe -oufn
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which HP thin client has stateless mode capability?
A. t5545 (HP ThinPro)
B. t5540 (MS Windows CE)
C. t5730 (MS Windows XPe)
D. t5145 (HP ThinConnect)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity,
integrated connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most
essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to configure your HP thin clients to boot from the network/ATA Flash/USB. What is the
correct command to use?
A. bootorder.exe -wNH
B. bootorder.exe -wHU
C. bootorder.exe -oNHU
D. bootorder.exe -oUNH
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the characteristic of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which thin client operating systems should you recommend to a customer who requires
high software extensibility? (Select two)
A. HP ThinPro
B. MS Windows XPe
C. HP ThinConnect
D. HP ThinPro Plus
E. MS Windows CE
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which HP thin client operating system includes the features listed below?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
Basic connectivity: ICA/RDP/X-term
Software extensibility: Modest - some modules can be download from HP
Peripheral support: Wide
Local browser: Firefox
Terminal emulation: TeemTalk
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MX Windows CE
Answer: A

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NO.14 A medium-sized bank has upgraded to the most recent Citrix XenApp environment. The
have asked you to provide thin client access devices. In addition to standard ICA access,
they need support for their local printers and would like to use XenApp's Web Interface 5.0
feature.
Which HP thin client models should you suggest as the best cost-effective option for them?
(Select two)
A. 2533t
B. 6720t
C. t5145
D. t5540
E. t5630
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

HP   Hp2-H05   Hp2-H05

NO.16 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two)
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 Which features are exclusively available with the Windows Xpe operating system and not with the
other operating systems supported on the HP thin clients? (Select two)
A. media player
B. Smart Card support
C. Enhanced Write Filter (EWF)
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
E. locked-down configuration and accounts
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.19 To which product line classification in HP thin client portfolio does the HP 2533t model
belong?
A. Mobile
B. Flexible
C. Essential
D. Mainstream
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your customer needs to connect to and communicate with applications on mainframes and
midrange systems running proprietary operating systems, UNIX, and Linux.
Which HP thin client operating systems provide this ability through their support of the
Neoware TeemTalk terminal emulation? (Select three)
A. HP-UX 11i
B. HP ThinPro
C. MS Windows Vista
D. HP ThinConnect
E. MS Windows CE
F. Windows XPe
Answer: B,E,F

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